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Which of these statements about type 2 diabetes are true?
It is associated with both insulin resistance and beta-cell dysfunction
It may be associated with a procoagulant state
Drug treatment is only indicated to reduce hyperglycaemia
Beta cell function declines at the rate of 4-5 per cent annually during the 5-6 years after diagnosis
Which of these statements are true?
Repaglinide reduces plasma glucose by delaying the absorption of carbohydrate after meals
Sulphonylureas have a duration of action of 6-8 hours
The maximum effect of postprandial glucose regulators occurs 2-4 hours after administration
Glipizide is taken once daily
Which of these statements about metformin are true?
Its principal mechanism of action is to reduce insulin resistance
It reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
In UKPDS, it reduced 10-year mortality by 12 per cent
It is the drug of first choice for type 2 diabetes provided the patient is not overweight
Regarding the thiazolidinediones, which of these statements are true?
Their full effect on plasma glucose levels may not be seen for 6-8 weeks
They reduce HDL-cholesterol
They reduce LDL-cholesterol
Pioglitazone reduces plasma triglycerides but rosiglitazone does not
Which of these statements are true?
DPP-4 is an enzyme that enhances the effects of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
DPP-4 inhibitors do not increase pancreatic insulin output
DPP-4 inhibitors suppress glucagon secretion by alpha cells
Acarbose lowers postprandial plasma glucose by competing with dietary carbo
hydrate for alpha-glucosidase enzymes
Regarding the effects of oral antidiabetic drugs (OADs) on glycaemic control, some of these statements are true. Which are they?
The higher the plasma glucose concentration at diagnosis, the greater the improvement in plasma glucose with OAD treatment
Treatment with an OAD typically reduces fasting plasma glucose by 4-5mmol per litre 2-3 years after diagnosis
Treatment with an OAD typically reduces HbA
1c
by 4-5 per cent 2-3 years after diagnosis
Provided OAD treatment is optimised, no patient with type 2 diabetes should need treatment with insulin
Which of these statements about the adverse effects of sulphonylureas are true?
Hypoglycaemia is an unlikely cause of altered behaviour in someone taking a sulphonylurea
The action of sulphonylureas may be prolonged in patients with liver or renal impairment
Glibenclamide is the sulphonylurea of choice for older people because of its short duration of action
Sulphonylureas commonly cause weight gain
Which of these statements about the adverse effects of metformin are true?
Metformin is concentrated in the salivary glands
A modified-release formulation of metformin reduces the incidence of adverse gastrointestinal effects by 20 per cent compared with the immediate-release formulation
The optimal starting dose of metformin is 500mg per day
Metformin is contraindicated in older people because of the risk of lactic acidosis
Which of these statements about the adverse effects of thiazolidinediones are true?
Liver function tests should be carried out when treatment is started and annually thereafter
They may increase weight by 3-4kg in the first six months of treatment
Rosiglitazone should not be prescribed for patients with ischaemic heart disease
They increase the risk of hip fracture in postmenopausal women
Which of these statements about the adverse effects of DPP-4 inhibitors are true?
They cause a mean weight loss of about 2kg in the first six months of treatment
Sitagliptin and vildagliptin can be used in patients with mild renal impairment
Sitagliptin has been associated with cases of pancreatitis in postmarketing surveillance
Vildagliptin is the DPP-4 inhibitor of choice for patients with hepatic impairment
Regarding the management of type 2 diabetes, which of these statements are true?
Good glucose control from the time of diagnosis is important for reducing the rate of complications
Exenatide is recommended as third-line therapy when weight loss is particularly desirable
Pioglitazone can be co-prescribed with insulin
Dual therapy (metformin/sulphonylurea) is associated with a two-fold higher risk of progression to insulin therapy over three years compared with triple therapy (metformin/sulphonylurea/pioglitazone)
Which of these statements about achieving best practice are true?
In the ACCORD trial intensive glycaemic control was associated with reduced total and cardiovascular mortality
For practical purposes the aim in clinical practice when treating type 2 diabetes patients is to achieve an HbA
1c
of 6.5 per cent or less
Intensive blood glucose control probably has no major benefit with regard to macrovascular disease in patients with type 2 diabetes of greater than 10 years’ duration who have established cardiovascular disease
In older patients or those with severe co-morbidities, acceptable control means simply keeping the patient free of hyperglycaemic symptoms and ignoring tight HbA
1c
targets
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